In article
<8b0c8e3c-f63b-440d-86b2-fca61ce32745@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>,
<"ltlee1@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
"> wrote:
> Some western leaders are considering not to participate the opening
> ceremony of the 2008 Olympic. But they as well as the players of these
> countries would still participate the other events. Is this a boycott?
> Or are they trying to bad name the 2008 Beijing Olympic without
> actually boycotting it? If one refuse to buy coffee from McDonald but
> he otherwise patronizes and enjoy McDonald's food, can he claim to
> have boycotted McDonald? When is a boycott a boycott?
>
> Of coruse the related questions are: Is "boycott" a matter of all or
> none? If not, then one have to talk about percentage boycotted. Is not
> joining the opening ceremony boycotting 5% of the Olympic event? Or
> does it constiute 10% of the 2008 Beijing Olympic? Image a headline:
> "France boycotts 10% of the 2008 Beijing Olympic." It sounds silly.
> May be the whole notion of boycotting the opening ceremony is silly.
>
I am sorry to say so, but I'm french, and more ashemed daya after day
about it.
Its true that France has always been late about ten years compared to
the States, we have here our own George Bush now...
