by "Mike Stevens" <michael.stevens@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Aug 29, 2007 at 10:41 PM
Blue Sow wrote:
> There seems to be a change of usage in progress whereby 'goods' is
> being replaced by 'good'.
>
> SOED p. 1125 gives:
> 3 (property and possessions) Now only in pl.
> 4 In pl. (commodities etc).
>
> The use of 'now only' in definition 3 suggests earlier use of the
> singular?
> The following is from BBC News:
> "As such, healthcare in Britain is considered a social right rather
> than a consumer good or something to be 'earned'."
>
> In this instance, and in several others heard in recent times, the
> singular 'good' is used.
>
> Does anyone have any ideas on why this may be happening?
Does it come from economic theory? I've an idea (subject to correction)
that in that context it mens something like "benefit".
--
Mike Stevens
narrowboat Felis Catus III
web-site www.mike-stevens.co.uk
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