Mike Stevens wrote:
> Blue Sow wrote:
>> There seems to be a change of usage in progress whereby 'goods' is
>> being replaced by 'good'.
>>
>> SOED p. 1125 gives:
>> 3 (property and possessions) Now only in pl.
>> 4 In pl. (commodities etc).
>>
>> The use of 'now only' in definition 3 suggests earlier use of the
>> singular?
>> The following is from BBC News:
>> "As such, healthcare in Britain is considered a social right rather
>> than a consumer good or something to be 'earned'."
>>
>> In this instance, and in several others heard in recent times, the
>> singular 'good' is used.
>>
>> Does anyone have any ideas on why this may be happening?
>
> Does it come from economic theory? I've an idea (subject to
> correction) that in that context it mens something like "benefit".
While Google is an excellent thing, doing a search for 'the moon is
cheese' gives 2,400,000 hits, so I think it hardly a reliable measure of
the veracity of things.
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