by "Ildhund" <jnllb@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Apr 16, 2008 at 05:22 PM
John Briggs wrote...
> Ildhund wrote:
>> Does anyone know the origin of this expression? Is it biblical or
>> classical?
>
> Classical.
>
>> I have a notion that the Corinthian/Commoners dichotomy is analogous to
>> Gentlemen/Players, the Corinthians being successors to Dandies and
>> similar high- (and loose-) living young gentlemen of means. Does it
>> pre-date the formation of the Corinthians football club in 1882?
>
> You have curious notions. It relates to the ideal of amateur s****t -
> associated with Greece, for some reason, cf Olympic Games.
Why so curious? Do you have any evidence for a particular link between
Corinth (either in biblical or classical times) and the ideal of amateur
s****t of any other variety than /to corinthiazesthai/ (fornication)?
--
Noel
